Why doesn't Germany today not have the same male deficit problem as former USSR countries?

A multitude of commentators today in geopolitics remark about the shadow that looms over former USSR countries’ demographics, the male deficit created by WW2, but countries like Germany suffered a great number of male deaths per capita yet have seemingly recovered their demographics affliction. When was this male deficit overcome?

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West Germany relied on immigration, the ‘guest worker’ programme.

2022 - 1945 = 77 years. So the second world war can not be the reason why the demographics are so different. Two reasons why there is a differce how the femal numbers of surplus are so much higher (above age 41) in post Soviet states: Wodka and workplace safty. Massive (unbelievabal) alcohol consume is part of the Russian (male) culture.

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Even without attributing anything specific to the Russian male culture, it’s worth noting that Russia continued to have armed conflicts (internal and external), famines, and large numbers of citizens sacrificed to the Gulags for decades after the war ended. All of those had a disproportionate impact on the male population. The vast majority in the Gulags (85%-90%) were men.

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Actually if you look at a demographic chart you can see echoes of what happened in previous generations. When the WW2 generation was mostly wiped out they will have few children. When those children grow up they will have a smaller follow on generation.

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Yes, but it was about why Russia has a much higher male deficit:

Germany:
grafik

Russia:

grafik

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Ok, I see the point you are making. You are right. Russia has a much lower life expectancy for males,than females and you can’t blame that on WW2

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