So when the Germans invaded Poland, Netherlands and the Belgium, all of the invaded countries joined the Allies. So why didn’t Iraq join the axis when they were invaded by a power (the British) in the Allies?
Same for Iran, it was invaded both by the British and the Soviets, so logic dictates they should have joined the side fighting your enemies, but they didn’t. Why?
I am sorry but with which army and what further way (they already began engaging British and RAF forces in May 1941) , with which strategy they would join to Axis. Germans were already sending weapons and military consultants to Iraq to guide Iraq Army in insurrection when British and Indian forces crossed the border and began marching to Baghdad in April-May 1941and RAF began bombing sorties from air bases (Iraq was a British protectorate for last 20 years) to the insurgent Iraq Army forces. Openly siding with Axis without any substential help (neither Germany not Italy could provide) would not change the fact that entire Iraq military rebellion initiated by a handful of militarist officers was crushed in less than four weeks since that was Britain’s back yard.
Same with Iran. The Shah and goverment and administration of Iran was under heavy influence of Britain and Soviet Union would not accept any Axis agents or influence over there. Anglo-Soviet invasion (or strengthening their already established presence) was simply a matter walkover in September 1941 since Iranian Armed Forces were trained by British but not really modern and both British and Soviets knew the Persian region since that had been their back yard since 19th Century. Neither Germans nor Italians could interfare there (Germans actually totally committed to Eastern Front back then in August 1941) would joining Axis officially make any difference two giants entering and occupying the country at the same time ? No ? Then why would they offend their ongoing relations with Allies ?
Aahh… but I don’t get the part where you say that Iran was under the heavy influence of Britain and Soviet Union. How exactly was Iran under the influence of Britian and the Soviet Union?
The Iran or Persian Empire came under British influance in economy , administrative cadres , education , diplomacy and military gradually since end of 18th Century due to British concern of any western foreign rival (like France , Russia , Germany) which had designs over India would come from over Iran and Afghanistan. (like Alexander The Great did who have an overrated influance over Western strategists I think. Ceasar , Napoleon , Kaiser Wilhem II all more or less tried to imitate him) Till 19th Century the main rival of British on these grand colonial designs on India were French. After fall of Napoleon I in 1815 with Battle of Waterloo , the main adversary of British over Iran , Afghanistan and India became Russian Tsaist Empire (which became Soviet Union after 1917) Some kind of Cold War between Britain and Russian Empire over Central and South Asia (Afghanistan , Iran , India) went on throughout 19th Century (which British statesmen called “The Great Game”) Iranians of course being proud Persians did not like British or Russians (they still do not like either of them) but Germany or other Axis powers were new comers and their strategical priorties were not about reaching those indirect South Asian territories (except India which Japanese wished to conquer in future by marching over Burma which was further east) Hitler and other Nazi visionaries did not give a damn about Middle East or Persian Gulf. Their strategic objective and grand designs were always about Ukraine , Baltics and Belarussia and then Trans Caucasia (Chechen and Azerbaijan oil fields at Caspian) after all these maybe reaching to Iran from north by land. They had no naval power to project over these regions anyway.