Where does this logic that beacause nazi germany was above the vichy government, it make it less responsible for its acts come from?

Hello, I wonder because it’s a logic I’ve often noticed when people debate on vichy role in the holocaust. Some seems to claim that depending of vichy autonomy, it make them less responsible. To me, it’s not a good logic, even if the german were giving the criminal orders, vichy’s still responsible for applying them, thus is still a criminal regime, no matter how much autonomy they had from the reich.
Thanks for your answers!