Here is a quote from a New York Times book review:
Faced with possible German destruction of the Royal Air Force bases in 1940, Churchill overruled his military command and drew Wehrmacht attacks on British cities. He describes in his memoirs ‘a sense of relief’ when Hitler took the bait.
Is that true? If it is true, how did he do it?
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The lufftwafe were attacking strategic points in preparation for operation sea lion. So Churchill asks the RAF to bomb Berlin. Hitler becomes enraged and changes target to London.
So in a way, yes he invited the lufftwafe to bomb London. But the strategic points were up and running because of that and the attacks were then scaled back to prepare for Operation Barbarossa and they were losing a lot of planes.
Welcome to the community!
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